AAPC CRC Instructor (CRC-I) Examination Practice Test
Risk-adjustment coding connects clinical documentation with diagnosis reporting used to represent a patient’s health status. CRC-I practice topics include evaluating whether a condition is supported in the current record, distinguishing active disease from history or resolved conditions, and recognizing how coding choices affect compliant risk-adjustment submissions.
Exam overview
About the AAPC CRC Instructor (CRC-I) Examination Exam
The questions sample judgment used when reviewing records and coding decisions: whether a diagnosis was assessed or addressed, whether documentation supports the reported condition, and whether a coder should seek clarification rather than infer a diagnosis from test results. Scenarios also address code-set instructions, including exclusions, and the handling of uncertain diagnoses in outpatient documentation. Compliance concepts include identifying unsupported carry-forward diagnoses and evaluating whether a submission process follows established requirements. For an instructor-focused examination, these topics also lend themselves to teaching practice: explain the documentation basis for a code, distinguish accuracy from completeness, and show learners how to apply a rule to a case rather than rely on a memorized label.
Sample Practice Questions
Review a selection from this exam's published US Practice Tests practice bank.
A record documents a healed fracture with no current symptoms or treatment, and the encounter concerns an unrelated condition. What is the most appropriate general coding approach for the healed fracture?
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Correct answer: CA healed condition that is neither evaluated nor treated and has no relevance to the current encounter is generally not coded as an active condition. A sequela or history code may be appropriate only when supported and relevant under coding rules.
A team is designing a compliance review for risk-adjustment submissions. Which measure best evaluates whether the submission process followed established requirements?
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Correct answer: AA compliance review should test adherence to applicable requirements by examining both the submitted data and the supporting documentation against established policies and rules. File transmission success or score comparisons do not establish coding compliance.
A patient’s record describes a malignant tumor as completely excised, with no evidence of residual disease and no further treatment directed to the site. The encounter is for surveillance. Which coding concept should guide selection of the site’s status?
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Correct answer: AWhen a primary malignancy has been eradicated, there is no evidence of current disease at the site, and no further treatment is directed there, a personal history concept is generally appropriate. Surveillance alone does not make the malignancy active.
A patient’s chronic disease is documented as stable, with no medication change. The clinician reviews the condition, discusses ongoing self-management, and schedules follow-up. Which principle best describes whether the condition may be reported for the encounter?
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Correct answer: BA stable chronic condition can be relevant to an encounter when the clinician evaluates, monitors, or manages it. A medication change or chief-complaint status is not required in every case; apply the applicable reporting rules and documentation standards.
A coding educator wants learners to understand the difference between coding accuracy and completeness. Which example best illustrates completeness?
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Correct answer: ACompleteness concerns whether all diagnoses that should be reported under applicable requirements are included. Accuracy concerns correct coding of what is reported; technical formatting and code knowledge are related but distinct measures.
A coding team receives an updated code set for a new fiscal year. Which action best reduces the risk of using outdated code descriptions or instructions?
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Correct answer: BAnnual code-set updates can affect code validity, descriptions, and instructions. A controlled update and validation process helps ensure staff and systems use the applicable current-year resources.
A coder is asked to assign a diagnosis from a laboratory result that is outside the coder’s role, while the provider has not documented the corresponding condition. What is the appropriate response?
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Correct answer: CCoders report provider-documented diagnoses and should not independently interpret clinical findings to create a diagnosis. If the result may affect code assignment, follow organizational policy and seek appropriate provider clarification.
How to use this practice test
Access is free. Each session draws up to 20 random questions from the 50-question bank and displays results afterward. Use the results to identify missed distinctions—such as current disease versus history, supported diagnosis versus inference, or code accuracy versus completeness—and revisit the relevant coding rationale.
Preparation tips
- For each case, identify the provider’s current assessment and treatment or monitoring before deciding whether a condition is reportable.
- Compare documentation for active disease, resolved disease, and personal history; note whether treatment or evidence of disease remains at the site.
- Practice responding to unsupported diagnoses: separate documented provider conclusions from laboratory findings, copied-forward text, and coder inference.
- Review how ICD-10-CM instructional notes, including Excludes notes, affect code selection and whether separate reporting may be appropriate.
- When teaching a coding decision, state the documentation evidence, applicable rule, and reason competing choices do not fit.